Except the first assumption that e^x = its own integral, everything else actually makes sense (except the DX are in the wrong powers). You simply treat the “1” and “integral dx” as operators, formally functions from R^R into R^R and “(0)” as calculating the value of the operator on a constant-valued function 0. EDIT: the step 1/(1-integral) = the limit of a certain series is slightly dubious, but I believe it can be formally proven as well. EDIT 2: I was proven wrong, read the comments
Yeah I don’t remember if the result is correct, but the process is definitely sus.
the result is correct
I don’t believe you can just factor our e^x in the second step like that. That seems in incorrect to me. Then again I’ve been out of calculus for years now.
The process is horribly wrong, but the answer is correct. I think that’s the intended joke.
