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Cake day: January 24th, 2025

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  • If marital rape was not an issue amongst GIs, it would not have driven their rate of rapes up.

    Yet you aren’t disputing the methodology, but the definitions of rape.

    Comparable metrics like “Rape per capita” and “rape per capita”.

    Since 1944 rape was legally redefined and expanded 5-6 times in both France and England (i prefer not to get into the details…), some of the laws and significant societal changes, actual policing standards changed even after this book was written (2001) and published (2007). Even the non-conflict related stats have a disclaimer about cultural and legal differences limiting direct comparison, but most importantly the UN considers conflict-related sexual violence as its own distinct category (again you’ve compared conflict vs non-conflict stats).

    But at this point I’ll give in to your logic and conclude this discussion with this graph which clearly indicates “that by those numbers, it would be much safer to be a woman with an English man in 2007, than to be a woman with an English man in 2022.”

    https://www.ons.gov.uk/peoplepopulationandcommunity/crimeandjustice/bulletins/sexualoffencesinenglandandwalesoverview/march2022


  • Unless you think marital rape was a major problem amongst American GIs in France from 1944-1945, it’s not really a salient point.

    Bravo, you’ve found the difference!

    Yes, actually. It has its problems, but the estimation of the number of rapes performed by GIs in France is not in dispute here;

    The comparability of arbitrarily picked numbers is in dispute which depends on the methodology.

    “We don’t know and we can’t know because evidence doesn’t exist” / "Numbers are meaningless” and “You should’ve used contemporary numbers instead!” / your argument would doubtlessly be “But contemporary definitions of rape don’t include acts we include in modern definitions of rape, therefore, it’s incomparable and my preconception remains untarnished by evidence.”

    Fair, my time is better spent on people understanding the difference between “use comparable metrics FFS” and “numbers are useless”.


  • Would you like to elaborate on how the definition of rape and consent changing in that 80+ year interval changes an estimation made in the early 2000s using modern definitions of rape?

    I’ve specified differences between 2022 and 1944 few times above how they may apply differently to the two eras and situation, particularly the marital part, I don’t think I need to repeat myself about it. Now, have you read the book?

    So you couldn’t say, for example, that modern rates of rape are lower than that of American soldiers during WW2?

    Correct and I’m not the one comparing apples to oranges here.

    … what? I haven’t referred to any BBC article.

    Mea culpa, you’ve just responded to it and seem to be quoting the numbers from it: Reference [10] is the BBC article.

    How can you say a point is outlandish if you can’t even dispute the basis of the assertion?

    Let me recite it:

    By those numbers, it would be safer to be a French woman with an American soldier in WW2, than to be a woman with an English man today."

    Those numbers say nothing about the actual safety of a French woman now vs. WW2.

    But this is getting a little boring at this point. Just use a contemporary comparison next time and then you won’t give off the impression of someone trivializing war associated sexual violence.